Jehovah
What appears to be the first secular mention of the Divine Name is found in an inscription on an Egyptian temple dating from as early as the Mid-14th Century B.C.E. (the period of Israelite Judges). It clearly seems to mention the Israelites as 'the (ta) Nomads (Shasu) of Yehwah (Ye-h-ua).'
That the name Jehovah (which means, He who Causes to Be, or, The Creator, or possibly even The Life Giver) was originally in the Bible, is documented in all ancient Hebrew texts. And it is most likely that the Septuagint translation which Jesus and his Apostles used (most quotations they gave seem to have come from an ancient Septuagint) carried that Name, but probably in the four Hebrew characters that represent the English consonants YHWH.
Notice this comment by Robert Hanhart, who contributed the Introduction to 'The Septuagint as Christian Scripture.' He stated therein that, 'All Greek biblical texts of Jewish origin found to date, whether from pre-Christian or Christian times, transmit the name יהוה Jehovah not in the form κύριος [Lord] encountered in all the LXX [Septuagint] manuscripts of Christian origin, but in some form of the Tetragrammaton.' (See: 'The Septuagint as Christian Scripture,' 2002, book, p.7, by Martin Hengel. Introduction by Robert Hanhart, published by Baker Academic. ISBN 0-8010-2790-X).
The word that is translated lord (gr. kyrios) is found throughout the Bible in Greek texts and is usually used as a term of respect for men, such as a king, governor, or homeownerÉ and it is also frequently translated as master. So, whenever you see the term master used in the Bible, recognize that it is translated from the same Greek word as lord. And as translators, it's easy to see how inappropriate it is to always refer to God as 'the Lord.' This was something that was started by later Jewish copyists, and the custom was adopted in English Bibles in the Fifteenth Century. Yet, even then the translators showed where God's Name once appeared in the Hebrew text by capitalizing all the letters, as in LORD (see Exodus 6:1). And in the King James Bible, the Name Jehovah still does appear in four texts (see Exodus 6:3).
According to Bible historians, the reason why the name Jehovah was removed from later copies of the Ancient Scriptures of Israel (OT) was because Jewish Scribes had become so awed with God's Name that they refused to write it or say it, so, they started substituting the term 'the Lord' (the Master) wherever His Name was found. And since all existing versions of the Septuagint come from the Second Century or later, it isn't surprising that God's Name has been omitted from such modern texts. The fact that the name Jehovah was once there is well substantiated from ancient Bible manuscripts, both Hebrew and Greek. In fact, a verse in the Jewish Talmud claims that Jesus received his miraculous powers because he had sewn the Holy Name (Jehovah) into his skin, which indicates both their (his enemy's) recognition of Jesus' miraculous powers and the common view of God's Name (see the link What the Talmud Says about Jesus under the subheading, The Description of Jesus in the Toledot Yeshu.
You will see how in the book of Isaiah, for example, God is often referred to in Greek as Kyrios ho Kyrios, or, Lord the Lord, or, Lord the God (see Isaiah 48:16). And these are obvious examples of texts where God's Name was omitted, for such sentences should clearly read the Lord Jehovah.
Although there are no remaining ancient Christian Era Scripture (New Testament) manuscripts that contain the full name Jehovah, there are four reasons why we believe that it existed in the original text. They are:
So, this Bible is one of two that we are aware of which uses God's Name in the Christian Era Scriptures, and that makes it quite unique. However, you will see that we (unlike the others) have avoided using it in places where the Greek words ho Kyrios could be speaking of Jesus, using the name Jehovah mostly in quotations from Hebrew texts which are clearly speaking of The God and are not prophecies about Jesus.
Some have objected to putting the name Jehovah in the Greek text, for they say that that use of the Name would have been offensive – and might have resulted in stoning – if Jesus and his disciples had actually spoken it. Yet, the Name had to be used when preaching to the Gentiles, or they simply wouldn't have known which Lord the disciples were talking about (remember, they were polytheistic). And to call God the Lord when most gods (and many men) were also called lord, would have been very confusing to everyone that Jesus' disciples preached to, both Jews and Gentiles. So we question whether the use of God's Name was considered as offensive prior to Jerusalem's destruction by the Roman armies (70-C.E.). Also, it is hard for us to imagine Jesus being afraid to speak the Name of his Father.
Another common argument we've heard against using The Name in the Chistian Era Scriptures (NT), is that it was the time of Jesus, and all mention of the Lord referred to him. However, numerous texts prove that simply isn't true. And again; it is hard for us to imagine Jesus pushing his own name over that of his Father.
But, since the words the Lord seem to have been substituted by Jewish and Christian copyists everywhere that God's Name originally appeared, it is in fact difficult to know where to reinsert the Name in place of the title, since the title appears to be the correct choice in many places. We could refer to the Hebrew texts and insert it wherever the Name appears there, but as you'll see below, the Hebrew texts frequently appear to be wrong. So, wherever the term the Lord appears in obvious reference to The God, and its use is in line with good grammar and Hebrew poetry, we have decided to insert the name Jehovah. And in some cases, where there is no chance of confusion about who is being spoken of, we have used either term to better support the poetry of the texts.
The rule that other translators have adopted for inserting God's Name is to simply use it wherever the Tetragrammaton (יהוה) appears in the oldest existing Hebrew texts (which aren't that old). However, it can be proven that these texts and such insertions are unreliable. For example, there is the instance when Abraham was talking to three 'men,' one of whom he referred to as the Lord. In this case, Abraham was obviously speaking to a messenger from God (likely His representative, Michael), because, as God told Moses, 'No man can see God and live.' So in such instances we have left the term 'Lord' unchanged, because that is likely the actual word Abraham used.
Also, in the writings of many of the Prophets, you will notice that they were often spoken to by God's messengers, whom the Prophets referred to as the Lord. And these messengers (angels) thereafter went on to give them messages from Jehovah. For example, notice the wording of Jeremiah 2:1: 'Then the word of the Lord came to me saying, Go and yell in the ears of Jerusalem! Tell them that thus says JehovahÉ' So in this Bible, you'll see an interspersing of the term the Lord, when it appears to be referring to the angel messenger, and as Jehovah, when it appears to be referring to The God.
We find this same text corruption in the Bible book of Judges, for example. Notice how the American Standard Version Bible renders Judges 6:18: 'And Jehovah said unto him, Surely I will be with thee, and thou shalt smite the Midianites as one man.' But look at who was really talking to him. In a previous verse (12), the same Bible says: 'And the angel of Jehovah appeared unto him, and said unto him, Jehovah is with thee, thou mighty man of valor.' It is interesting that the Septuagint (Greek) text of Judges 6:18 reads: 'Kai eipen pros outon ho aggelous Kyriou Kyrios, Estai meta sou, kai pataexeis ten Madiam osei andra hena,' or, 'And said to him the messenger (angel) of the Lord Lord (Jehovah), I/am with you, and you/shall/strike the Midianites as man one
Notice again the wording of Amos 4:13, where the one who gave the message to that Prophet (apparently the Lord Jesus in his pre-human state) definitely spoke of Jehovah in the third person, though he is apparently saying that he (the angel) actually did much of the work of creating; for there he said: '{Look!} I brought the thunder and I made the wind; and I report to men of His caring. For He produces the dawn and the fog, and is mounted on the heights of the earthÉ His Name is Jehovah God the Almighty!'
Then look at the words of Zephaniah 1:9, where the Prophet wrote: 'And I asked, What are these, O Lord? And [God's] messenger replied (he who was speaking to me), I will show you what all these things mean.'
Notice again, the words of Hosea 1:7, which say, 'Yet, by the power of Jehovah their God, I will show mercy upon Judah's sons, and I will bring them salvation. I won't save by the bow or the broadsword, nor by the battles of horses and horsemen.'
Also, notice the words of Amos 7:7, where we read, 'Then the Lord [took me] and showed me, and {Look!} there was Jehovah standing upon a straight wall holding a plumb line in His hand.'
Also, notice that the term, the Lord (ho kyrios), would have been used by Hebrew writers when speaking of God in poetry wherever the previous or following verse uses the name Jehovah; because, in Hebrew poetry, a following verse is often written as a simile (using not the same, but similar words). As an example, notice how we have correctly rendered Job 15:25: 'For, against Jehovah he has lifted his hands, and before the Lord he has stiffened his neck.'
Another important place where it appears as though the term the Lord should be used instead of the name Jehovah, is where people do something in His Name, as in James 5:10, which speaks of 'Prophets who spoke in the name of the Lord.' For, since Jehovah is God's Name (in English), they would not be speaking in the Name of Jehovah (which is His Name), but in the Name of the Lord (Jehovah). Yes, this could be an arguable point, but where there is some question and the understanding isn't changed, we believe it is better to take a cautious approach, since we have found too many errors in uses of The Name.
We have received several letters complaining about our using the term the Lord in place of the Name Jehovah where other Bibles use the Divine Name. A good example of this is found at Joel 2:32 and Paul's reference to that same scripture at Romans 10:13. Notice how we have rendered Joel 2:32: 'And all those will then be saved, who have called on the Name of the Lord, said Jehovah. For, in Mount Zion and in JeruSalem, there will come one who can rescue, announcing good news to all those, who have been called by Jehovah.'
You can see that this is a clear example of how the Jewish translators of the Masoretic text have added the Tetragrammaton to replace a reference to someone who would be sent by Jehovah to rescue and announce good news, or, the Messiah. For God did not say, 'Who have called on MY NAME,' but rather, the text shows that He was speaking of a third party. Please recognize that one of the problems with the corrupted Masoretic (Hebrew) text is that there are many evidences (such as this) of tampering to remove Messianic prophecies, which other Bible translators have simply missed. And if you read the context surrounding Romans 10:13, you will see that it was speaking of Jesus also.
Probably the most striking and confusing reference to the Lord is found at Hebrews 1:10-12, which says: 'Long ago, O Lord, you laid the foundation of the earth, and you made the heavens with your hands. But they'll pass away while you still remain. For like clothes they will grow old. Then, as [you would do to] a robe, you will wrap them up and repair them. Yes, you're the one and your years will never expire.'
As you can see, the reference to the Lord here appears to be speaking of God (Jehovah). And if you go back to the scripture Paul was quoting (Psalm 102:25-27), you'll see (from the context of the surrounding verses) that it appears to be speaking of Jehovah there also, and this is the conclusion that many have reached. Yet, the entire First Chapter of Hebrews is discussing Jesus and his special position before God. And Paul is clearly quoting Psalm 102:25-27 to make the point that Jesus made the heavens and the earth, that he will remain through the ages, and that he will eventually rebuild (repair) them after they grow old.
So, either Paul misapplied this scripture, which seems unlikely, or both Hebrew and Greek versions of Psalm 102 have been badly corrupted through the years, which our research proves is possible. As the result (because the answers are unclear), we have deviated from our rule of capitalizing the first letter of the words You and Your in many places in Psalm 102 and Hebrews 1, and from inserting the Name Jehovah wherever its use may be in doubt. However, this opens another can of worms, for it brings into question the accuracy of major portions of the Hebrew text and the use of the Tetragrammaton rule altogether.
It has also been suggested that since Jesus 'shines with the same glory, is the exact image of His (God's) being, and is responsible for everything that's said through His power,' as we were told at Hebrews 1:3, anything that is said about God also applies to JesusÉ perhaps.
Of course, the easy answer to why Paul used Psalm 102 in reference to Jesus, is because Jesus is actually Jehovah, as many theologians claim. But this is proven untrue by the other words in the same First Chapter of Hebrews. For notice the following verses:
(For more information on this subject, please see the linked document Who Was Jesus?)
Forgetting God's Name is a practice that has had a long history with the Jews, for apparently they were trying to do this during the time of the Prophet Jeremiah (sometime in the early Seventh Century B.C.E.), because we read at Jeremiah 23:27: 'They've devised ways to forget My Name, then they use their dreams to describe to their neighbors, how their fathers were the ones who've forgotten My Name, and turned to the service of Baal.'
What about the Christian Era Scriptures? Recognize that most early Christian Congregations (and especially those in Judea) were predominantly made up of Jews, and their traditions seemed to have had a strong negative effect on Christian conduct and doctrine throughout the world. For example; almost all of Paul's letters (Romans through Hebrews) contain strong references to Judaizers in the congregations, and this influence likely led to substituting Lord for God's Name in Christian writings after the deaths of the Apostles.
Perhaps Christians would more deeply appreciate the need to use the name Jehovah, rather than the title 'Lord,' when referring to God, if they understood that the term 'the Lord' in the language of the Canaanites was 'BaAl' or 'BeEl.'
Then, what of those who prefer a more exact Hebrew pronunciation of the Name, which can be Yahweh (Yah-h'-Wĕh), Yahwah (Yah-h'-Wah), or Yehwah (Yĕh-h'-Wah)? That is commendable if their reasons are consistent. For, if their concern is to properly pronounce Bible names (not a hatred for God's Name as it is pronounced in English), they will also be found promoting the proper Hebrew pronunciation of His son's name, Ieshuah (Ye-Shuah), or Iehoshuah (Yĕ-h'-shuah)É or at least the proper pronunciation of his name in Greek, Iesous (Yay-sous). But then they would also have to start changing hundreds of other Bible name containing a J (such as John, Jeremiah, Jonah, Jerusalem, etc.), and they would find that almost every other Bible name is currently mispronounced in the English language.
How important is it to pronounce God's Name in the same way as did the ancient Hebrews? Consider the fact that First-Century Christians seemed to easily change the name of His son between its Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek spellings and pronunciations, depending on the language that they were speaking. So to them, the correct pronunciation wasn't all that important. In other words; Arguing over the exact pronunciation is a wasteful diversion from more serious matters.