Notes

The Greek word aionos is what the English word eon is derived from. It means an indefinite period. However, there is no exact English word to translate it. The best equivalents are age(s) or era(s). Please note that where the plural form of the word (ages) is used, it refers to a long time, at least multiple generations. However, where the singular form is used (age or era), this appears to mean a much shorter period, such as a lifetime, generation, or era. And where the term ages of ages is used (such as at Ephesians 3:21), which is usually said in reference to God, we would assume that this truly means forever.

It is noteworthy that aionos is the word that is used in the Greek Septuagint in place of the Hebrew word ohlam, which is also translated as forever and time indefinite in popular versions of the Hebrew Scriptures. So, this one word (aionos) is translated as forever, everlasting, eternal, system of things, time indefinite, [end of] the world, long ago, from of old, etc. Obviously, something is very wrong here, because the word can’t mean a period having a definite end in one place and infinity in another.

Take for example, the unique way that aionos is used in the question that Jesus’ Apostles asked him, which is found at Matthew 24:3, ‘What will be the signs when you are near and this age will come to its conclusion?’

You can see that the word aionos obviously doesn’t mean forever, everlasting, or eternal in this case, nor did it mean world or system of things. It simply meant the age or the time before the end would come. And for them, that meant the age when the Temple at Jerusalem would be destroyed, because that’s what Jesus had just told them.

The word aionos (which we have translated as age here) is also translated as world (KJ) and as system of things (NW) in other Bibles. However, if the Apostles had meant any of those words, they would have used the Greek word cosmos, not aionos, for world or system of things.

The ancient Hebrews viewed everything (and rightly so) as having a beginning and an end. For that reason, you will only find three places in the Bible where words are used that imply no end and none that imply no beginning. An interesting possible insight on the reason for this can be found at Hebrews 1:10-12, which says:

‘Long ago, O Lord, You laid the foundation of the earth and Your hands made the heavens. They will destroy themselves, but You will remain. They will grow old just like clothes do. Then, as [You would do to] a robe, You will wrap them up and repair them like clothes. Yes, You are the One, and Your years will never run out.’

The problem with most Bible translations is that when they encounter the word aionos in all its different tenses, they interpret it according to accepted doctrine, not according to the way that Jesus and his disciples used it. So, the common renderings forever, eternal, and everlasting are used even when the word is in its singular form (aioni, aiona, aionos, aionion, aionian, aionios, aioniou), and this totally distorts the meaning of the text.

Take for example, the scripture at John 5:24, where Jesus said, ‘I tell you the truth; the one who hears what I say and believes in the One that sent me will have life in this age. He won’t have to be judged, but has crossed over from death to life.’

Most Bibles translate Jesus as saying that those who believe in the One who sent him will have everlasting life (or the equivalent). However, the words that Jesus used there were, zoe aionos (life age – singular), not zoe aionion (life ages – plural).

Notice how Jesus explained the meaning of these words with his next statement, ‘He won’t have to be judged, but has crossed over from death to life.’

So, what Jesus was saying here, wasn’t that they would have everlasting life, but that they would (in their current life) be considered among the living, not among the dead (see Revelation 20:12). This doesn’t necessarily mean that they won’t live forever; it’s just that Jesus wasn’t really saying that.

From consideration of the evidence found in the bulk of Jesus’ words about life, the conclusion might be logically reached that he never taught the hope of ‘life eternal,’ ‘everlasting life,’ or ‘immortality,’ in those specific words. However, the concept is still there. What he taught was that (unlike those whom God considers to be ‘dead’) living people will receive ‘life in the age,’ meaning, they will be considered worthy of life by God during their lifetimes.

Two words imply infinity in the Bible. One is the Greek word athanasia (undying), which is only found in two places, 1 Corinthians15:53, where it mentions resurrected ones as clothing themselves with immortality, and at 1 Timothy 6:16, where Paul speaks of Jesus as having received it. The other Greek word, aidios, which is found at Romans 1:20 and at Jude 6, is used to describe God’s Power and Might as eternal.

For more information, select the linked documents, The Hereafter and Does the Bible Promise Everlasting Life?

There seems to be quite a bit of difference between these two words (called and chosen) and their implications for the people involved. For, notice what Jesus said as recorded at Matthew 22:14, ‘Many are the called but few are the chosen (gr. polloi eisin gar cletoi, oligoi de eclectoi).’ And this verse could be possibly even be translated as ‘Many are the nominated but few are the elected.’

These words of Jesus seem to put an end to the notion that everyone who is called by God was foreordained to that position before his/her specific birth. Rather, what was determined is that there would be people in general (not specific individuals) who would be chosen. Because, as Jesus makes clear here, not all who are among the called (or the nominated) to this hope are thereafter counted among the chosen (elected). For, why would God call people if He already knew that there was no chance of their being chosen?

Notice how this was stated at Revelation 17:14. There we are told, ‘Then they’ll go and fight against the Lamb. But, because he’s the Lord of lords and King of kings, the Lamb and those who are with him (the called, elected, and faithful) will conquer them.’

So, ‘the called’ also have prove faithful in order to become ‘the elected’ to serve with Jesus.

That was the point of Jesus’ parable at Matthew 22:1-14, which (as Jesus said) was an illustration concerning ‘the Kingdom of Heaven.’ In that parable, many were initially ‘called’ to the banquet of the King, but they didn’t want to come. The obvious reference here is to the Jews who were invited first to become kings in that Kingdom, but who for the most part, rejected the invitation.

The king then ordered his slaves to go out into the streets and ‘call’ anyone who wishes to come to the banquet. These words obviously refer to the calling of people of the nations, or the gentiles (gr. tas ethne – the ethnics).

So, is this parable talking about being called to heaven to rule there with Jesus… for isn’t the wedding banquet for God’s son to be held in heaven, and aren’t those who are invited to God’s banquet the bride who will be with Jesus in heaven? We have always thought so, but notice that the guests in this parable aren’t referred to as virgins (as was the case of those mentioned in Revelation 14:1-4). Rather, they are called ‘both the wicked and the good,’ which is a strange way to refer to the ‘Saints.’

Next, as the parable continues, the king noticed a guest who wasn’t properly dressed for a wedding feast (he didn’t have the required qualities). This guest was then bound and thrown back outside (but not killed). Do as you can see, he was called but not chosen. Now, if we were to assume that this banquet is held in heaven, and since he was already there at the feast, we must ask: was he then kicked out of heaven… and if so, we would also have to ask, then why was he taken there to begin with?

Now, we do know that there are those who are taken to heaven to rule with Jesus, but they are likely the bride at the wedding feast, not the guests (see Revelation 17:7-9). For, notice what Paul said of himself at Philippians 3:11, ‘… so I can somehow be found worthy of the upward resurrection from the dead.’

What was Paul talking about here? It appears as though, when speaking of ‘the upward resurrection,’ he was saying that although he had been ‘called,’ he may not have been ‘chosen’ yet for heavenly life. That this is what he was likely talking about, can be seen from what he said at Philippians 3:12, ‘[I’m not saying] that I’ve made it yet, or that I’m already perfect.’ Then he continued with the words (at Philippians 3:14), ‘I am running toward the goal, the prize of the upward (gr. ano – upward or higher) calling from God through the Anointed One Jesus.’

So, notice that the Bible speaks both of a ‘calling’ and of an ‘upward calling,’ which we assume refers to being called to heaven. And how would Paul know that he had been ‘chosen’ for this lofty reward? It appears as though such a person must first endure incredible suffering for his/her beliefs (as did Jesus), for notice what Paul wrote at Romans 8:17, ‘We have to suffer together so we can also be glorified together.’

Such suffering must be much more than what is typical of the suffering and death of mankind. Does this ‘suffering’ require a dying a martyr’s death? That seems to be the gist of the prophecy at Revelation 6:9-11, which says, ‘When he opened the fifth seal, I saw the lives of those who had been slaughtered because of the Word of God and because of the testimony that they gave, underneath the altar ... Then they were each given a white robe and they were told to take it easy just a little while longer, until the full number of their fellow slaves and brothers was filled (who were going to be killed, as they were).’

But, in the case of Jesus’ words found Matthew 22:14, (‘Many are called but few are chosen’), we would have to conclude that God calls many people from among mankind to become His faithful slaves and to thereafter attend the wedding banquet of the Lamb (whether in heaven or earth is not stated), but not all who are called are found worthy.

Throughout the Bible, we read of ‘the ransom’ that Jesus paid. Exactly what is this term referring to?

At Matthew 20: 28, Jesus said, ‘This is how the Son of Man came, not to be served, but to serve and to give his living body as a ransom for many.’

Romans 5:12, 14 says, ‘Sin entered this world through one man and this sin resulted in death. So, death spread to all men because everyone has sinned. However, death reigned from [the time of] Adam down to Moses, even over those who didn’t sin in the same way that Adam did. And [Adam] was a prototype of the one who would come.

1 Corinthians 15:21, 22 says, ‘Since death came through a man, resurrection from the dead also comes through a man. And as all are dying because of Adam, all will be made alive in the Anointed One.’

So, from the above, we must conclude that Adam lost the hope of ‘life for the ages’ for all his descendents, because of his sin in Eden. However, Jesus came and paid the ‘ransom price’ to God to redeem us from the sin of Adam, so that we could once again have the hope of life in the age and a resurrection.

Notice that in this Bible translation, 2 Corinthians 1:21, 22 (for example) says, ‘The One who guarantees that we all belong to the Anointed One, and He who anointed us, is God.’

So, why didn’t these translators just go ahead and render the word (Anointed) as Christ – as countless other translators have done? For two reasons:

1. Because Christ has almost totally lost its meaning to most Bible readers today, and most have come to believe that ‘Christ’ was part of Jesus’ name. It wasn’t.

2. Because Christ is word that was made up by early Bible translators and is only used in that form when they think that the Bible was speaking of Jesus. In other places it is correctly translated as anointed.

If you look at the above verse in Greek, you’ll see that it reads, ‘Ho de bebaion hemas syn hymin eis Christon kai chrisas hemas Theos,’ or, ‘The of stabilizing us with you into Anointed and anointing us God.’

You will notice here that Christon (Christ or Anointed) and chrisas (anointed) are both derived from the same root word, which by the way, is Greek for olive oil. Why olive oil? Because, that substance was traditionally poured over the heads of those who God chose to be kings over Israel. For example, David and Solomon were both anointed (oil was poured over their heads) in proof of the fact that they had been chosen by God to be kings over Israel. So, the word means anointed. But if you prefer the word Christ, then David and Solomon were Christs, for you can’t have it both ways.

Such a physical anointing with oil appeared to picture receiving God’s Holy Breath, which happened to Jesus at his baptism, to 120 of Jesus’ disciples at Pentecost of 33-C.E., and to other First-century Christians. So, Jesus didn’t really become the Christon (Christ, Anointed, or Chosen One) until he was anointed with Holy Breath at his baptism (when the ‘dove’ came down on him).

If you understand this nuance, you get the true meaning of the word Christ (Anointed) as it applies to Jesus; it means that he was the one who God chose to be king over His people. Also, Paul was telling the Christians in Corinth that they too would be anointed… become ‘christs.’ For when they were ‘anointed’ and sealed in their hearts by God’s Holy Breath, they were selected to be ‘kings over the earth’ (Revelation 5:10).

Also, notice what can be learned from a proper understanding of the Greek words by looking at Matthew 24:24. For what he actually said was, ‘Because false Anointed ones and false prophets (gr. pseudo christon kai pseudo prophetai) will arise and they will perform great signs and omens to mislead (if possible) even the elected.’

So, Jesus wasn't necessarily saying that people would come claiming to be him, but people would come falsely claiming to be the anointed and prophets.